Hi all,
My uncle has dementia and his wife is said to have changed their house ownership from tenants in common to joint tenants to protect assets. I understand this to be a common thing to do.
I also understand that the notice has to be served on the person with dementia even though they might not understand what it is it. My question is what needs to be done to prove it was served and therefore this was done properly in case it is contested later on?
Does anyone know if something like this has ever been contested before and if it was upheld?
My uncle has dementia and his wife is said to have changed their house ownership from tenants in common to joint tenants to protect assets. I understand this to be a common thing to do.
I also understand that the notice has to be served on the person with dementia even though they might not understand what it is it. My question is what needs to be done to prove it was served and therefore this was done properly in case it is contested later on?
Does anyone know if something like this has ever been contested before and if it was upheld?