I would welcome any comments on this scenario. Recently a friend was assessed by SS as needing carers to visit his home three times a day. However due to him living in a remote area SS could find no Care Company who could provide it . So SS decided it would be in his best interests to provide a place in a care home until home care could be put in place. After a year it was decided that it would be best for him not to return home, but to stay in the care home. He had not been charged for his care home. Shortly after this happened he was sent a bill for the care he had received. I'm thinking he should not have had to pay this as first SS assessment didn't assess him as needing a care home. I am totally confused.......quite easily to confuse me I might add!