Just a quick one, so I can pick everyone's brains again.
When my dad died, he left me everything ( not a lot, poor devil) in his will. My mother has had Alzheimer's for 7 years and is in a local authority run nursing home. When I took the deeds for their house to the solicitors, they found a page in with the deeds stating that the house would go to my mother if my dad passed away first. Is this still the case or does the will override this? The reason I ask is that the proceeds of the house sale will obviously be used to pay my mother's fees and I feel sick that she can't have any real benefit of what she worked so hard to get.
My mum and dad often joked that when they 'went', as they put it, they would leave me everything they had, so that both my wife and I and our kids would have something out of it. Sounds a bit mercenary I know, but I mean well, believe me.
When my dad died, he left me everything ( not a lot, poor devil) in his will. My mother has had Alzheimer's for 7 years and is in a local authority run nursing home. When I took the deeds for their house to the solicitors, they found a page in with the deeds stating that the house would go to my mother if my dad passed away first. Is this still the case or does the will override this? The reason I ask is that the proceeds of the house sale will obviously be used to pay my mother's fees and I feel sick that she can't have any real benefit of what she worked so hard to get.
My mum and dad often joked that when they 'went', as they put it, they would leave me everything they had, so that both my wife and I and our kids would have something out of it. Sounds a bit mercenary I know, but I mean well, believe me.